8/10/2023 0 Comments Z pronounced zed or zee![]() ![]() Anything Webster's or Oxford took an absolutist stance on became "correct" in their respective countries because of the nature of how people used dictionaries to teach, correct, review, and inform themselves. Which was used to both teach "correct" English, judge other's English and review the "correctness" of ones own language. While Oxford and Webster's (as well as the smaller producers) were reading each other's dictionaries for everyone else there was only " the dictionary" which was the one everyone else around them had. This was how languages standardized before the internet (and spell check, and downvotes, etc etc etc). Meanwhile in America the exact same role was instead filled by the Webster's dictionary. There were few places in the UK where any significant writing was being done without an Oxford dictionary near at hand. It was in every classroom, it was cited in jurisprudence, it was in every office, and in every white collar home. Literally the entire British Empire would go on to use the Oxford dictionary in every aspect of society. ![]() This is implicit in OPs response but it's something that maybe shouldn't have been assumed. In medieval Latin, after a transition period when I and J where essentially typographical variants (like 'ɑ' and 'a' are both lowercase A in different fonts), people started using I for the vowel and J for the consonant, as well as U for the vowel and V for the consonant. In fact, the French to this day use the same symbol ("ou") for "w" and "oo", leading to funny spellings when they transcribe African languages, like "Ouagadougou", which would have been spelled "Wagadugu" if it had been in an English colony.Īnyway, over time, people started to differentiate between the consonant and vowel forms of these sounds. These are quite natural pairs, because "oo" and "ee" when slurred into the next syllable basically become "w" and "y". The Latin letter I was pronounced as a consonant like "y" as in "yellow" or as a vowel like "ee" as in "cheese". The Latin letter V was pronounced as a consonant like "w" (as in "well") or as a vowel like "oo" (as in "good"). In Roman inscriptions, the U/V letter looks like V and the I/J letter looks like I, so from here on, I'll talk about the "Latin letter V" and the "Latin letter I". Our modern lowercase letters are of much later origin. There were various styles of handwriting in use in the Roman empire, but the most familiar style is the one used in stone inscriptions, which formed the basis for our modern capital letters. Latin did not have separate letters V and U, nor, for that matter, separate letters I and J. Previous AMAs | Previous Roundtables Featuresįeature posts are posted weekly. ![]() May 25th | Panel AMA with /r/AskBibleScholars Please Subscribe to our Google Calendar for Upcoming AMAs and Events To nominate someone else as a Quality Contributor, message the mods. Our flaired users have detailed knowledge of their historical specialty and a proven record of excellent contributions to /r/AskHistorians. Please Read and Understand the Rules Before Contributing. Report Comments That Break Reddiquette or the Subreddit Rules. Serious On-Topic Comments Only: No Jokes, Anecdotes, Clutter, or other Digressions. Provide Primary and Secondary Sources If Asked. Write Original, In-Depth and Comprehensive Answers, Using Good Historical Practices. Questions should be clear and specific in what they ask, and should be able to get detailed answers from historians whose expertise is likely to be in particular times and places. Nothing Less Than 20 Years Old, and Don't Soapbox. Be Nice: No Racism, Bigotry, or Offensive Behavior. Downvote and Report comments that are unhelpful or grossly off-topic.Upvote informative, well sourced answers.New to /r/AskHistorians? Please read our subreddit rules and FAQ before posting! Apply for Flair ![]()
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